Chicago Bulls guard Zach LaVine is set to undergo surgery on his right foot next week, leading to an expected four to six months of absence from the court. The decision for the procedure was made by LaVine and his agency, Klutch Sports Group, following consultations with various medical professionals.
Bulls coach Billy Donovan stressed that the choice to undergo surgery was ultimately LaVine’s, highlighting the player’s efforts to rehabilitate and return to play. Despite recovering from a sprained right ankle sustained on January 18, LaVine continued to experience discomfort in his foot, sidelining him for an extended period. This same issue had previously caused him to miss 17 games earlier in the season.
Donovan had earlier indicated that the team anticipated LaVine being out for at least another week before reassessment. The coach acknowledged LaVine’s commitment to his health, stating that the persistent discomfort prevented him from performing at his best.
LaVine’s challenging 2023-24 season concludes after just 25 games (23 starts), where he averaged 19.5 points on 45.2% shooting, along with 5.2 rebounds and 3.9 assists. This marks his lowest scoring output since the 2017-18 season when he played 24 games recovering from ACL surgery. Despite his significant contract extension in July 2022, LaVine has faced injury setbacks, missing double-digit games in three of the past four seasons.
With LaVine being a key name in trade discussions leading up to the deadline, Donovan mentioned that no conversations had occurred regarding how the injury might impact the team’s future. The Bulls, currently in ninth place in the Eastern Conference, hold a 13-11 record (.542) without LaVine and a 10-15 record with him this season.
Donovan acknowledged the impact of losing a player of LaVine’s caliber but emphasized the team’s need to adapt and continue performing without him.